TruthVid's 100 Proofs that the Israelites were White, Part 30

We once again continue our discussion of particular passages in Paul’s epistles where certain terms are either mistranslated or misunderstood, adversely affecting the interpretation of the Scriptures throughout the New Testament. As we have already explained, due to the nature and purpose of Paul’s writings there are more of these than there are in all of the other New Testament Scriptures. Essentially, the churches claim that Paul changed Christianity from a focus on Jews to a universal focus, and that is a perversion of the entire message of the Gospel of Christ, and also of the often-stated purposes and intentions of Paul himself, who meant only to bring the Gospel to the lost sheep of Israel, doing what Christ had commissioned him to do.

45 continued) Specific NT verse misteachings, mistranslations or corruptions in the epistles of Paul

We have already addressed many elements of Paul’s epistles to the Romans, Corinthians, Galatians and Ephesians, and now we will turn to his epistle to the Philippians. Once we are able to demonstrate the numerous King James Version errors in translating the many words and verses which we have selected for these presentations, and properly translate those words and verses, a very different picture of the purpose and substance of the ministry of Paul of Tarsus comes to light, and his words are seen to correspond to all of the words of the ancient prophets relating to the children of Israel.

Philippi was a city in what was once Thrace, but conquered by Philip II of Macedon and renamed after himself in the 4th century before Christ, whereupon it was colonized by Macedonians. The city was later conquered twice by the Romans, during the Roman Macedonian Wars of the 2nd century BC and again by the triumvirate as the city sided with Brutus and Cassius in their attempt to preserve the Republic. This last conquest resulted in Roman colonization of the city where its land was divided among the colonists, at least many of whom were former Roman soldiers. While we can imagine that there must have been a surviving Macedonian population, from that time the city had a strong Roman presence.

In Philippians chapter 1, Paul is seen as addressing saints, or sanctified ones, mentions the fellowship of the Gospel, the confirmation of the Gospel, and encourages them to conduct themselves in a manner which is worthy of the Gospel. Throughout the chapter, Paul also encourages them to good fruits, to seek out what is excellent, and to stand fast in the faith of the Gospel in spite of their enemies, who are also the enemies of Christ. As we see in the Gospel, those who would love Christ are also expected to keep His commandments, and Paul is exhorting the Philippians to do that very thing in this chapter, in words which are not explicit, but which convey the fact that Christians should willfully choose to keep the commandments on account of their salvation, and not so that they may be saved.

Philippians 2:14-16: When Paul wrote these things in Philippians, he was expecting the outcome of his own trial and imminent execution. So in Philippians chapter 2 he encourages them to keep the commandments where he wrote, as it appears in the King James Version: “14 Do all things without murmurings and disputings: 15 That ye may be blameless and harmless, the sons of God, without rebuke, in the midst of a crooked and perverse nation, among whom ye shine as lights in the world; 16 Holding forth the word of life; that I may rejoice in the day of Christ, that I have not run in vain, neither laboured in vain. 17 Yea, and if I be offered upon the sacrifice and service of your faith, I joy, and rejoice with you all.”

In that last verse Paul is expressing the concept that his own death is worthy so long as the Philippians chose to obey Christ on his account, as a result of his having brought them the Gospel. But as the King James translators rendered this passage, it sounds as if men can choose to do good so that they may be sons of God, and that alone would set them apart from the rest of the world. However Paul’s message is actually much stronger than that.

I will repeat the text of verse 15: “That ye may be blameless and harmless, the sons of God, without rebuke, in the midst of a crooked and perverse nation, among whom ye shine as lights in the world;”

In this verse, the word blameless is from the Greek word ἄμεμπτος, which is in turn from the negative prefix α and μέμφομαι, which is to be blamed or blameworthy. Liddell & Scott define ἄμεμπτος as “not to be blamed, blameless...of things, perfect in its kind...” The word harmless is from ἀκέραιος, which primarily means “unmixed, pure in blood” and it is derived from the negative prefix α and the verb κεράννυμι, which is “to mix, mingle...” according to Liddell & Scott. The phrase without rebuke is from the Greek word ἄμωμος, which is a compound word from the negative prefix α and μῶμος, which is blame, ridicule, or disgrace.

So, according to the definition of ἄμεμπτος, something which is perfect in its kind is something which is without blame. This concept we first see in Genesis chapter 6, where the descendants of Adam were race-mixing with the so-called “sons of God”, which in apocryphal books and certain manuscripts of the Septuagint are instead identified as “sons of heaven” or angels, referring to the fallen angels. There it says of Noah that “9 These are the generations of Noah: Noah was a just man and perfect in his generations, and Noah walked with God.” Another witness that the so-called “sons of God” were actually fallen angels is the use of the word nephilim, which means fallen ones, to describe what is translated as giants in that chapter.

These three words, set in apposition to the phrase γενεᾶς σκολιᾶς καὶ διεστραμμένης, for which the King James Version has “a crooked and perverse nation”, must be interpreted within that same context. The word γενεά, which is a race, stock, or family, is nation in the King James Version in verse 15. But it is both morally and intellectually dishonest to gloss over or ignore the message of racial purity meant by Paul in his use of ἄμεμπτος and ἀκέραιος which are also joined here with the entreaty to “do all things” and must refer to the Word of Life mentioned in verse 16.

If ἄμεμπτος, which is without blame, is used in contrast to sin then we may imagine it to mean blameless in that context. But here it is not in apposition to sin. It is in apposition to words describing a crooked and perverted race, and therefore it must have been used by Paul to describe something perfect in its kind, as Liddell & Scott also define the word. In that manner it is more readily distinguished from ἄμωμος, which may also mean blameless. If ἀκέραιος were set in apposition to some wicked thought, then perhaps we may imagine that it can be interpreted to refer to some unpolluted or pure thought. But being in apposition to the phrase describing a crooked and perverted race it must be translated in its literal sense, where Liddell & Scott define it to mean “unmixed, pure in blood”.

Therefore we must translate this passage of Philippians chapter 2 to read as it is in the Christogenea New Testament: “14 Do all things apart from murmuring and disputing, 15 that you would be perfect and with unmixed blood, blameless children of Yahweh in the midst of a race crooked and perverted - among whom you appear as luminaries in the cosmos, 16 upholding the Word of Life for a boast with me in the day of Christ, that not in vain have I run nor in vain have I labored.” Of course, luminaries in the night sky are white and stand out in the darkness.

In this context, that is the only passage which we have to discuss from Philippians, so now we shall turn to the epistle to the Colossians.

Colossians 1:23: “If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister....”

The phrase every creature is ἐν πάσῃ κτίσει in Greek, which I must translate “among all the creation” and which alternatively may be read “among the whole creation”. The words πᾶς and κτίσις are both in the dative singular, where πᾶς is “when of one only, all, the whole”. In Romans 8:38-39 Paul makes it clear that he had considered the Adamic race of man, which is a single family of one specific kind, to be one creation, as opposed to other aspects of God’s creation. There Paul wrote: “38 I am persuaded that neither death, nor life, nor messengers, nor magistrates, nor present, nor future, nor powers, 39 nor height, nor depth, nor any other creation will be able to separate us from the love of Yahweh, which is in Christ Yahshua our Prince.” So all these things which Paul mentioned he saw as different creations, although they are also a part of creation as a whole. Therefore the whole creation or all the creation mentioned here is not necessarily all of the overall creation, but rather, it is merely all of the Adamic creation, the Adamic race. In that passage Paul clearly referenced the Adamic race as a single unit, or kind, of creation. If different races, or as the King James Version has “every creature”, were meant, then the words would have appeared in the dative plural, and so it would be “among all creatures”, though that is certainly not the case.

Tobit 8:5-6 and 15 in the Septuagint is an example of these Greek words appearing in the plural and interpreted to mean all creatures. From the King James Version of Tobit 8:5 we read: “Then began Tobias to say, Blessed art thou, O God of our fathers, and blessed is thy holy and glorious name for ever; let the heavens bless thee, and all thy creatures.” The phrase all thy creatures is from the Greek phrase πᾶσαι αἱ κτίσεις σου. The same phrase is translated the same way in the King James Apocrypha in verse 15, and in both verses all three words, πᾶσαι αἱ κτίσεις or all creatures, are plural. The Gospel of Christ is not for all creatures, but rather, it is only meant for a specific creation, the Adamic creation which survived in the children of Israel, as Abraham was promised that his seed would inherit the nations, and they did. For example, there were no recognizable Thracians in Philippi at the time of Christ, but there were many Dorian Greeks and Romans who descended from the ancient Israelites.

So likewise, in Wisdom 5:17 we read, God being the subject: “He shall take to him his jealousy for complete armour, and make the creature his weapon for the revenge of his enemies.” There we see the creature, which is the same singular word κτίσις meaning creation, is opposed to the enemies of God, and therefore refers to only a single creation, or species, excluding and distinct from the enemies themselves. Then another example is found in Wisdom 19:6, where we see the concept of a creation narrowed to include only the children of Israel: “For the whole creature in his proper kind was fashioned again anew, serving the peculiar commandments that were given unto them, that thy children might be kept without hurt.”

So if the creature or creation of these passages, as it is the same word κτίσις, is distinct from the enemy, and if the creature was given the law which only the children of Israel had, then we must ask, who is who, and search the Scriptures for the answer. And given that, the answer is that the word creature in the singular certainly can and does often refer to only one element of the overall creation, one species, type or even family.

Speaking of the children of Israel, we recently discussed the word anointed, from the Greek word χριστός, which is always translated as Christ in the King James Version even on a few occasions where it cannot possibly refer to Christ, but must instead be referring to the collective children of Israel. Discussing this phenomenon in Ephesians chapter 3 in our last presentation, I had mentioned it in reference to verse 4, but omitted discussing it again in verse 17, so I will do that here.

At Ephesians 3:14-17, Paul wrote: “14 For this reason I bow my knees to the Father, 15 from whom the whole family in the heavens and upon earth is named, 16 in order that He would give to you, in accordance with the riches of His honor, the ability to be strengthened through His Spirit in the inner man, 17 to administer the Anointed through the faith in your hearts, being planted and founded in love…” There the King James translators wrote in verse 17 “so that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith”, but that defies the grammar of the clause. The word χριστός is in the Accusative Case, and therefore it is the object of the verb, not the subject as the King James Version has it. The verb is κατοικέω, which is to settle in, colonize, or generally to inhabit, but also to administer or govern.

Similar to this statement to the Ephesians is Paul’s message to the Colossians, in chapter 1 where he wrote: “24 Now, I rejoice in these sufferings on your behalf, and I substitute for those deficiencies of the afflictions of the Anointed with my flesh on behalf of the body itself, which is the assembly; 25 of which I have become a servant in accordance with the administration of the household of Yahweh which is given to me for you, to fulfill the word of Yahweh, 26 the mystery which has been concealed from the ages and from the races, but now has been made visible to His saints, 27 to whom Yahweh did wish to make known what the riches of the honor of this mystery are among the Nations, which is the expectation of honor anointed in you, 28 whom we declare, admonishing every man and teaching every man in all wisdom in order that we may present every man perfect among the Anointed. 29 For which I also labor, striving in accordance with that same energy which is operating within me with power.”

Here in verse 24, Paul certainly was not suggesting that Yahshua Christ hadn’t suffered enough, so he himself suffered more on behalf of Christ. Rather, Paul tells the assembly that he suffers on behalf of the Anointed, the children of Israel. Further on, in Colossians 2:11, Paul mentions the “circumcision of the Anointed”, which is that circumcision of the hearts of the children of Israel, mentioned in Deuteronomy 10:16; 30:6, Jeremiah 4:4, Romans 2:29 and elsewhere. The King James Version translations of these passages constantly make Christ the object of Paul’s ministry, rather than the subject, as the lost sheep of the ancient Israelites are his objects. Throughout the books of the prophets, Yahweh God had promised through Christ that He would gather His people, and the King James and all other translations obscure the fulfillment of that promise in the New Testament.

In Colossians 3:23-24 we read, from the King James Version: “23 And whatsoever ye do, do it heartily, as to the Lord, and not unto men; 24 Knowing that of the Lord ye shall receive the reward of the inheritance: for ye serve the Lord Christ.”

The phrase “ye shall receive the reward” is ἀπολήμψεσθε τὴν ἀνταπόδοσιν. The word rendered receive is a form of ἀπολαμβάνω, but if Paul meant to say receive, λαμβάνω by itself would suffice, with no prefix being necessary. The word ἀπολαμβάνω means to receive something back or in return, which is to recover. Furthermore, the word ἀνταπόδοσις is not merely a reward. Rather, the word refers to something given back, or a giving back in turn. So it is evident that these two words actually work together in context and they must mean to describe a return of something being given back. So we would assert that the King James rendering is dishonest. With these explicit words coupled together in this manner, the phrase can only mean that “you shall recover the return”, referring to the inheritance. Paul knew that he was speaking to descendants of the dispersions of ancient Israel, those who had lost their inheritance in the first place as it was described in the histories and the prophets. So we translate verse 24 to read: “24 Knowing that from the Prince you shall recover the return of the inheritance, the Anointed Prince you serve.”

At Colossians 4:3 Paul wrote: “Withal praying also for us, that God would open unto us a door of utterance, to speak the mystery of Christ, for which I am also in bonds.” Elsewhere Paul stated that his mission was to deliver “a message for compliance of faith by all of the Nations”, in Romans 1:5. Then later in that same chapter, in verses 25-26 he wrote that “the proclamation of Yahshua Christ; in accordance with a revelation of mystery having been kept secret in times eternal, but being made manifest now, through the prophetic writings; in accordance with the command of the eternal Yahweh, for the submission of faith to all the Nations….”

In Acts chapter 28 Luke recorded Paul as having said: “20 For this cause therefore have I called for you, to see you, and to speak with you: because that for the hope of Israel I am bound with this chain.” Christ is the hope of Israel, but it is the identity of the children of Israel which would be revealed in the Gospel of Christ. Christ was never a mystery, he is described in the Gospel. But the identity of the lost sheep of Israel was the mystery which Paul was declaring. So we would translate this verse from Colossians chapter 4 to read: “3 at the same time praying also for us, in order that Yahweh would create an opportunity for the Word, for us to speak of the mystery of the Anointed, for which I also have been bound.”

Then the fact that the anointed are a particular people is further revealed two verses later, in Colossians 4:5 where Paul wrote, as it is in the King James Version: “Walk in wisdom toward them that are without, redeeming the time.” So here we must ask, “toward them that are without” what?

This archaic English rendering is quite obscure today and it may be easily misconstrued to mean something that the Greek cannot possibly mean. The word rendered without is the adverb ἔξω and it means outside, referring to someone who is not inside. The phrase οἱ ἔξω γένους was used by the poet Sophocles to describe those outside of a race [Antigone, 660]. This use of the word here can only be considered as a reference to those who are outside of the covenants and promises of God, as compared to those who are included, which are the anointed which were mentioned a few verses earlier. “In reference to those outside”, or “Pertaining to those outside” is precisely the exclusive statement which Paul intended, and the covenants are only for the descendants of the ancient Israelites unto this very day.

But another passage which leads to confusion over the identity of the parties of Scripture is 1 Thessalonians 2:14-16. It is not mistranslated, but there is a single word interpolated into late manuscripts which may lead one to believe that the Jews were truly Israelites, rather than being Edomites. So here it is, from the King James Version: “14 For ye, brethren, became followers of the churches of God which in Judaea are in Christ Jesus: for ye also have suffered like things of your own countrymen, even as they have of the Jews: 15 Who both killed the Lord Jesus, and their own prophets, and have persecuted us; and they please not God, and are contrary to all men: 16 Forbidding us to speak to the Gentiles that they might be saved, to fill up their sins alway: for the wrath is come upon them to the uttermost.”

Here in verse 15, the word translated as their own in the phrase “their own prophets” does not exist in the manuscripts, according to the Nestle-Aland Novum Testamentum Graece, until a 7th century revision of the Codex Bezae, the 9th or 10th century Codex Athous Lavrensis, and certain citations of the heretic Marcion found among the early so-called Church Fathers. But the word is not found in the original reading of the Codex Bezae, not in the older Codices Sinaiticus, Vaticanus and Alexandrinus, as well as other early Codices. So the phrase should read “and the prophets”, as wherever we do find a record of someone murdering the prophets in the Old Testament we find apparent non-Israelite outsiders, such as Jezebel or Doeg the Edomite.

All of these small details may seem trite, but compounded they have a significant effect on one’s view of Scripture once they are all amended. But now we shall turn to something else which Paul had written about Satan, which is the collective enemy of Christ.

The King James Version, from 2 Thessalonians chapter 2: “3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God. 5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things? 6 And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time. 7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way. 8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:”

This passage has always been used to promote the concept that the antichrist, or an antichrist, would come at some point far in the future, while in truth the Satan which Paul had described is the Edomite Jew who has been present here all along. The problem with this translation is that there are verbs here in verses 3 through 7 which in English may be interpreted as being future tense, but in the Greek of those verses there are no verbs of the future tense.

So focusing on verses 6 and 7, Paul was actually describing something that was already happening in the very time when he was writing. But first, the verb κατέχω is to prevail in both verses 6 and 7 in the Christogenea New Testament, which I shall read momentarily. However in the King James Version it is to withhold in verse 6 and to let in verse 7. The verb is defined by Liddell & Scott as “to hold fast...to hold back, withhold...to detain...to have in possession, possess, occupy… to hold down, overpower, oppress, afflict… intransitive:… to hold, stop, cease… to prevail...to have the upper hand...” and although it is quite a versatile word I cannot account for the King James Version rendering of let at verse 7. It seems that the King James Version translators took the subject of Paul’s statements here to be Yahweh God Himself, and so they confused the rendering and they distorted this verb while inserting words not found in the text (will let) in order to try to make sense of the statements. Rather, the subject of Paul’s statement here has not changed from verses 3 and 4: it is that same “man of lawlessness” and “son of destruction” (the terms being used collectively) and so there is no confusion, keeping Paul’s statements in context.

The first five verses of 2 Thessalonians 2 tell us exactly who this is: the entity seated in the temple of God, and pretending to be as God. In verse 4 Paul tells us that he is seated using the present tense. So we must read from verse 3 in order to understand the context of verses 6 through 8 properly, from our own translation, commenting on the King James Version as we proceed:

2 Thessalonians 2:3 You should not be deceived by anyone, in any way, because if apostasy had not come first, and the man of lawlessness been revealed; the son of destruction,

First, the King James Version adds an entire clause, “that day shall not come”, which is in italics because it is not found in the Greek text. Second, the verb come is in the aorist tense, denoting an action which had already begun when it is mentioned, and not a future action, for which Paul may have used a future tense form of the verb. Then, where the King James has “that man of sin be revealed”, it also suggests a future action where that verb is of the aorist tense, as the man of sin was revealed in the ministry of Christ.

Now that we see these actions were already taking place, Paul continues:

2 Thessalonians 2:4 he who is opposing and exalting himself above everything said to be a god or an object of worship, and so he is seated in the temple of Yahweh, representing himself that he is a god.

The King James Version renders four verbs here in ambiguous tenses: “opposeth… exalteth… sitteth… [and] shewing…” Yet three of these verbs, opposing, exalting and showing or representing, are present tense participles, while the verb which we translated as is seated is an Infinitive. All of these verbs describe actions which were already taking place as Paul wrote, as most of them are in the present tense.

2 Thessalonians 2:5 Do you not remember that, yet being with you I had told these things to you?

Paul had taught these things to the Thessalonians at some point before writing this epistle.

2 Thessalonians 2:6 And you know that which now prevails, for him to be revealed in his own time.

That which now prevails: this verb is also a present tense participle. For him to be revealed: the verb is an aorist infinitive, the action was already initiated but is not yet complete. The Gospel of Christ had not had its full impact as Paul was writing, and the aorist tense is used to describe a process or action which is not necessarily completed.

2 Thessalonians 2:7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already operating, he prevailing only presently, until he should be out of the way,

The present tense participle rendered as prevailing here also seems to have been rendered in the present tense in the King James Version, although a phrase is added and it is translated in a manner which does not suit the definition of the word: “he who now letteth will let”. The verb rendered he should be is also aorist, indicating that the action has already begun.

2 Thessalonians 2:8 and then will the lawless be revealed, whom Prince Yahshua will destroy with the breath of His mouth, and abolish at the manifestation of His presence.

Now here there are three verbs of the future tense, which we translated as be revealed, will destroy and abolish. So some wicked entity sitting in the temple when Paul wrote would ultimately be exposed with the Gospel of Christ, prevailing until that entity is finally destroyed by Christ at His coming. This satanic entity which Paul describes can only be the Edomite Jews who controlled the temple as he was writing. So Paul says in the ensuing verses, from the King James Version:

2 Thessalonians 2:9 Even him, whose coming [or presence] is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders, 10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.

Here the word coming may also indicate a future action, but the word is not a verb at all, and actually it is a noun, παρουσία, which simply means presence. The Satan of which Paul wrote was already present in his own time, and not some future Antichrist. Calling this Satan “the son of destruction”, as Paul does in verse 3, the passage should be cross-referenced to Romans chapter 9 and the description of the collective children of Esau as “vessels of wrath fitted to destruction”. In both cases, the word for destruction is ἀπώλεια, so the reference is apt.

Finally, there is 2 Thessalonians 3:2, where the King James Version reads: “And that we may be delivered from unreasonable and wicked men: for all men have not faith.”

The last clause of this verse is consistent in all of the ancient manuscripts which are cited by the Nestle Aland Novum Testamentum Graece, and therefore it is indisputably οὐ γὰρ πάντων ἡ πίστις. A word for “men”, italicized in the King James Version here, does not appear in the clause. Neither does the verb have, but that word is not italicized in the King James Version.

The conjunction γάρ is defined by Liddell & Scott, in part, as being: “I. Argumentative, to introduce the reason for a statement, which usually precedes....” This first use fits this occasion perfectly. Other uses of γάρ listed are “II. Epexegetic” and “III. Strengthening” and do not fit the grammatical purpose or the context here. The lexicon further states that in Greek writing γάρ is “regularly placed after the first word of a sentence” although of course this is not the case in English. Here γάρ is rendered as since, to introduce the reason for the statement which precedes.

The word πάντων here is the genitive plural of πᾶς, all. The genitive case marks source or possession. Surely in this case it does not indicate source. The particle οὐ is an unconditional negative, as opposed to the conditional μή. Here it negates πάντων, the word which follows. Properly it would be translated as “of all”.

The verb εἰμί, to be, is unique among Greek verbs in that “as in classical Greek, so also in the New Testament εἰμί is very often omitted ... ἐστίν most frequently of all the parts” (quoting Thayer, εἰμί, VI., p. 180 col. B.). ἐστίν is the 3rd person present singular of εἰμί, it is or simply is: Examples of this are near at hand, in 2 Thessalonians 1:5, 1:6, 3:1, 3:16, and 3:18 in the King James Version, noting the words in italics. This verb will be supplied here in it's most natural position, following the subject of the clause, which is here marked by its having been written in the nominative case.

The phrase ἡ πίστις is the faith, with the definite article, and it is in the nominative case so it certainly cannot be the object of any verb, as the King James Version has it, and they supplied a verb of their own because there is no verb in the text. If the phrase were the object of a verb, it would have been written in the accusative case: τὴν πίστιν. But since ἡ πίστις is nominative, the words must be the subject of the clause. This is a fundamental of grammar and should be readily evident in any Greek grammar textbook.

With this it surely should be clear that the King James Version translation of 2 Thessalonians 3:2 is absolutely untenable, and in fact, purposely dishonest. Paul was not saying “for all men have not faith” and the King James Version added two significant words, have and men, to create a lie and to twist what Paul had actually said.

So our rendering of the text: since (the conjunction γὰρ introducing the reason for the preceding statement) the faith (because in English we are inclined to state the subject of the clause at its beginning) is (ἐστίν being implied, as it often is) not (the negative particle preceding that which it negates) of (i.e. belonging to, or for) all (being in the genitive case), and so “since the faith is not for all” is proper and literal.

But the King James Version did not introduce this deceptive mistranslation, as it is also found in the Geneva Bible. Over the years, I have been informed by friends that Bibles found in languages such as Spanish and Polish do have a reading very close to our own. In English, not even translations such as the Berean Literal Bible could get the translation of this simple five-word clause correctly. They have “for not all are of the faith”, but the words for “the faith” are in the nominative case, and not the genitive case, so they also lie. Out of all the major English translations, only the Young’s Literal Translation has it right, where it reads “for the faith is not of all”.

To clarify that statement, we translated it as “the faith is not for all”. The faith is not for all, because it is only for the children of Israel. If the faith is for one race only, then that race must be the White race as Paul had taken the faith to Europe, to White Europeans, and to no others.